Is Tithing as According to Mal 3:10 after the death of Christ a Sin?

“Everyone who commits (practices) sin is guilty of lawlessness; for [that is what] sin is, lawlessness (the breaking, violating of God’s law by transgression or neglect–being unrestrained and unregulated by His commands and His will).” 1 John‬ ‭3:4‬ ‭AMP‬‬

The law refers to mosaic law in totality. Its like this; in every nation there is law that bind the nation. There are many laws and sub-laws in it. Breaking one, is breaking the law. Say in a nation, you stole something, its just one law that you break out of so many law yet you break the law hence, one is punished for it. Say, one of the law says: you pay your tax specifically and strictly by US dollar, that is the part of the law. You can break that part of that law in two way:

  1. One don’t pay at all. Or,
  2. Pay but in different currency, or pay but pay it in other place.

In the case of tithing, it became part of the mosaic law, breaking it is also breaking the law. The question is, how do you break it?

  1. By not paying it? Or,
  2. By paying it but in different currency or paying to someone else who was not ordained to receive it?

Either way, you are breaking that part of the law hence, it satisfy the verse that sin is transgression of the law or any part of it. Not unless, it became not applicable because we are not under the law anymore but under grace. Then, those who don’t practice it is not breaking that law simply because they refrain from participating or involvement from it. But, for those who practice it, you are guilty of 2nd offence to which you are paying but you are still breaking the law because first it was agricultural, 2nd it is for the levites to collect or receive.

Now, I know that tithe was not define by the mosaic law when Abaraham tithed. So in a sense, one could say that he is not breaking any law if he based his tithe on the way Abraham tithed. While I agree to this, then why use verses like Lev 27:30, Malachi 3:10, Matthew 23:23 and any other verses that were written within the context of the law? These verse are bound with mosaic law to which it was the right exclusively to be receive by sons of Levi therefore, should someone use these verses as a reason for tithing, then that someone will surely break the mosaic law because, though you are giving you are not giving it in a right currency (agricultural) and to the right person (sons of Levi) which was the requirement of the mosaic law where the verses was contextually written.

Moreover, if you tithe based on pre-law where there is no God’s law about what to tithe, who to tithe and where to tithe to. Then, basically giving 10% in all manners and to whoever or whatever can be called tithing and is not sinning because anybody can define tithing since there is no definition and rules yet. Say; A person who give his 10% income from illegal transaction to the church if based before the law is also not a sin and acceptable since tithe is not define yet remember, Abraham tithe had came from a plunder in a war yet it was ALL accepted. A man who give his 10% to the needy can also be tithing. A man who give 10% to the priest as his support is also tithing. Basically, as long as you give 10% to whoever, whatever, wherever can be called tithing and is not sinning because before the law, there was no law that define tithing but, if you give your 10% in response to ANY verses that were written under the context of the law (Malachi 3:10, Lev 27:30, Matthew 23:23 and others), then you are bound to break the mosaic law hence, you will sin.

Click “Will a Man Rob God“? to read further.

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1 Response to Is Tithing as According to Mal 3:10 after the death of Christ a Sin?

  1. Pingback: The Wages of Sin | The Tithe Truth

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