Your Property, Your will.

You ought to be followed by what you want on your own property for, after all, it’s yours.

“They said to Him, “Caesar’s.” And He said to them, “Render therefore to Caesar the things that are Caesar’s, and to God the things that are God’s.”Matthew‬ ‭22:21‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

In the above verse, we can say that tax is a belonging of Ceasar’s and tithes is a belonging of God and since the tax is owned by Ceasar it is, therefore, Ceasars will that should be followed. Through time, the owner’s will on tax is being constantly updated through the law of the land. To date, it’s being collected by IRS/BIR/IRAS as it is the will of the owner.

Meanwhile, in tithe, we can also say that it’s a belonging of God. Obviously, since the verse says give also to God what belongs to God, no one can directly give to God but through the medium of men. But, who are these medium of men authorized to collect what belongs to Him? Where can this be found? In the law of the land or the bible? The answer is in the bible because, it’s where the owner’s will is written and, apparently what belongs to Him as recorded in the Bible was to be collected by Levites.

“Behold, I have given the children of Levi all the tithes in Israel as an inheritance in return for the work which they perform, the work of the tabernacle of meeting.” ‭‭Numbers‬ ‭18:21‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

Is the will of God in this regard already updated today that non-levites are collecting it now? If Yes? Show a verse commanded by God that non-levites can now collect tithing that does not belong to them? Surely, if you are the owner, you wouldn’t want that your property will be collected or used by someone you did not authorize.

Some would quote the verse below because it says “here” meaning in the present to prove that men today can collect what belongs to God.

“Here mortal men receive tithes, but there he receives them, of whom it is witnessed that he lives.” Hebrews‬ ‭7:8‬ ‭NKJV‬‬

In the proper context, the “‘mortal men” actually still refer to Levitical priest. But, say you insist and take the verse as it says without caring about the context, still “mortal men” did not specify who are those mortal men. If you take it on its face value, it would follow that every man is qualified to collect tithe for the obvious reason that every man on earth regardless of the title, status, age and wealth will experience death hence, every man on earth is actually mortal or subject to death. And, if everyone on earth fit the description of the receiver, who shall be the giver of tithe?

Others would still push and go back as far as Abraham where it was not collected by the lineage of Levites but by Melchizedek whose lineage is unknown. Melchizedek was a type of Christ, in comparison, Melchizedek is equivalent to Christ today. For this reason, nobody can be like Melchizedek or Christ today. We are the priest under Jesus Christ but no one can have the same priestly status as Jesus or Melchizedek. Having said this, Melchizedek is the one who personally collects the tithe of Abraham, not priests (if there were any) under Melchizedek. Today, it is being collected by priests who are not within the status of priesthood same as Jesus or Melchizedek. Which brings me to the question, did Jesus authorized any priest under him to collect what belongs to Him? Even apostles were instructed to give freely as it was freely given. When God was revealed to you, did you not acquire it freely or it comes with a cost? Like, you graduated in a school or university or something where you have to pay tuition to learn about God? If this is the case, then I understand why you should not give it freely for, after all, you did not acquire it freely. But, are you sure it is the God of the bible that you’ve learned or, others masked only as God in the bible?

By: Sherwin

Note: Pardon me for off grammar or spelling.

God bless.

This entry was posted in God, Tithes and tagged , , , , , , , , . Bookmark the permalink.

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