“Righteous Father, even the WORLD didn’t know you, but I’ve known you, and these believers know that you sent me. I’ve made YOUR NAME known to them and will continue to make it known so that your love for me will be in them, and I myself will be in them.” John 17:25-26 CEB
The “them” is His Disciples but, His disciples were also Jews whose forefather was Moses to whom God revealed His name. So naturally, they know their God’s name but, why must the Christ say that He made the Father’s name known to them when they know already the name? And further said that even the WORLD does not know the Father which implies that, even Jews do not really know the Father hence, the Christ made His name known to them.
But, what name was it that even Jews does not know yet before the Christ came?
Is it the name “Father”? Nope, God was already called Father way before the Christ Came. Therefore, this is not the name otherwise, no need for the Christ to make it known to His disciples.
“Yet you, Lord, are our Father. We are the clay, you are the potter; we are all the work of your hand.” Isaiah 64:8 NIV
“But you are our Father, though Abraham does not know us or Israel acknowledge us; you, Lord, are our Father, our Redeemer from of old is your name.”Isaiah 63:16 NIV
Is it YHWH or Jehovah? Nope, As recorded in some version, YHWH was given to Moses, was translated to Lord. So, YHWH or Jehovah or Lord was already known to them even before the Christ came. Therefore, this is not the name otherwise, no need for the Christ to make it known to His disciples. Its either Moses was lying or the Christ, I’d rather believe the Christ.
So, what name was the Christ referring to? The clue is below.
“I’m no longer in the world, but they are in the world, even as I’m coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them in your name, the name you gave me, that they will be one just as we are one. When I was with them, I watched over them in your name, the name you gave to me, and I kept them safe. None of them were lost, except the one who was destined for destruction, so that scripture would be fulfilled.”John 17:11-12 CEB
According to the verse above, the Christ is partly saying that the Father’s name was given to Him. So, what name was that?
“As he was thinking about this, an angel from the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, “Joseph son of David, don’t be afraid to take Mary as your wife, because the child she carries was conceived by the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you will call him Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”Matthew 1:20-21 CEB
“Jesus” was the name given to the Christ by the Angel which He said to be the name of His Father.
But, how about the below verse in KJV which implies that the name Jesus was already known before the Christ came?
“Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;”Acts 7:45 KJV
Seems odd right? Let’s use the principle below. Let us check other versions.
“This will be my third visit to you. “Every matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses.”2 Corinthians 13:1 NIV
This is what other version says;
“which our fathers, having received it in turn, also brought with Joshua into the land possessed by the Gentiles, whom God drove out before the face of our fathers until the days of David,”Acts 7:45 NKJV
“After receiving the tabernacle, our ancestors under Joshua brought it with them when they took the land from the nations God drove out before them. It remained in the land until the time of David,” Acts 7:45 NIV
“In time, when they had received the tent, our ancestors carried it with them when, under Joshua’s leadership, they took possession of the land from the nations whom God expelled. This tent remained in the land until the time of David.” Acts of the Apostles 7:45 CEB
So, it is evident that KJV has somehow mistranslated that part hence, other versions corrected it. KJV is not a perfect translation, it is said that more or less 5% was a mistranslation. That’s around 1,555 verses of a total 31,102 verses in the bible. The principle as implied in 2 Corinthians 13:1 should be used in reading the bible, it is written for a reason.
Click How to treat different bible version to read further.
To conclude, it is evident that the name Jesus only appeared in the bible when the Angel gave it while the child was in Mary’s womb. It is the name that the Christ made known to His disciples to which at that time, the world does not know yet. No wonder Jesus is said to be the name above all name in (Philippians 2:9-10) because it is the name of the Father after all which was only given to the Son for Him to make it known to the world.
But, why did the Christ not call His Father “Jesus”? Answer: Its because it’s disrespectful, you don’t call your father on his proper name rather, you used an endearment name that identifies your relationship to your father. Nonetheless, through the Christ, the proper name of God was revealed and apostles were aware of this. In fact, when they were commissioned to baptized in the name (singular) of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit Matt 28:19. Peter responded in Act 2:38 using the name Jesus Christ. Why? Because, Jesus is identified to the name of the Father, Christ is identified to the name of the Son and the Holy Spirit was sent in the name of Jesus Christ.
Click The most proper name of God – Jesus to read further