“God said to Moses, “I Am Who I Am. So say to the Israelites, ‘I Am has sent me to you.’” God continued, “Say to the Israelites, ‘The LORD, the God of your ancestors, Abraham’s God, Isaac’s God, and Jacob’s God, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever; this is how all generations will remember me.”Exodus 3:14-15 CEB
“I am the LORD; that is my name; I don’t hand out my glory to others or my praise to idols.”Isaiah 42:8 CEB
In the verse above, “I am who I am” is like saying “I will be who I will be”. Whatever name I gave and will give is up to me. I owned everything, it’s up to me to decide what name I will give. True enough, He gave the name Lord but, did the verse say, “That is my “personal name” to indicate that “Lord” is His most proper name? No. It says, “name” only. Lord is a noun which means “nomen” or literally means name, it’s a title name worthy to a God. This title will last forever because this title is attached to a deity that is eternal. But, is it really His personal name? Did God give Moses His most personal name?
Nope, He entrusted the revelation of His personal name to His begotten Son.
Prophesied by Zechariah;
“The LORD will become king over all the land. On that day the LORD will be one, and the LORD’s name will be one.” Zechariah 14:9 CEB
Confirmed by Christ.
“I and the Father are one.”John 10:30 CEB
The Christ said also below;
“Righteous Father, EVEN THE WORLD DIDN’T KNOW YOU, but I’ve known you, and these believers know that you sent me. I’ve made your name known to them and will continue to make it known so that your love for me will be in them, and I myself will be in them.”John 17:25-26 CEB
The World according to Christ does not know the Father meaning, even Jews does not really know the Father’s name otherwise, why would the Christ said “I’ve made your name known to them” when they already know the Father’s name. It does not make sense for the Christ to speak those words since their ancestor (Moses) receive the name unless, what Moses had received was incomplete or rather, a title name of the Father for after-all, the bible is not clear what kind of name was given to Moses.
So, what is the name that Christ made known? Is it the name “Father”? I don’t think so since before the coming of Christ God was already known as their Father so, it follows that should the name of God is “Father”, there is no sense for the Christ to still make the name known to them since they already knew God in the name “Father”
“But now, LORD, you are our father. We are the clay, and you are our potter. All of us are the work of your hand.”Isaiah 64:8 CEB
Is it the name “Jehovah/YHWH? I don’t think so since before the coming of Christ it was already known besides, most experts translated it as LORD which is a title name. Now, why would God allowed YHWH to be translated by as Lord? Moreover, as mentioned in the bible, every matter must be established in two to three witnesses. It seems God purposely allowed it to be translated as Lord by the majority of bible experts so as to reveal that YHWH is not really His most proper name but is simply equivalent to Lord which is His title forever. And, if YHWH is really God’s proper name, why was there a need for Christ to make His Father’s name known to His disciples when they knew already the name? It does not make sense for the Christ to speak the below words when they already knew the Father’s name:
- I’ve made YOUR NAME known to them… John 17:26 CEB
- I have revealed YOUR NAME to the people you gave me from this world…John 17:6 CEB
Why would the Christ still make known His Father’s name when they knew it already There is no sense why Christ would still make known the Father’s name unless, before the Christ made it known, no one really knows the Father’s name.
But, what name did the Christ made known?
The clue is in the verse below;
“I’m no longer in the world, but they are in the world, even as I’m coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them in YOUR NAME, THE NAME YOU GAVE ME, that they will be one just as we are one. When I was with them, I watched over them in your name, the name you gave to me, and I kept them safe. None of them were lost, except the one who was destined for destruction, so that scripture would be fulfilled.” John 17:11-12 CEB
Confessed by Christ Himself but, others would still argue that the name that Christ received from the Angel was a theophoric name meaning, the Son receive a name with the name of God in it. But;
- If it was a theophoric name it would again not make sense since it would imply that they knew already the Father’s name
- The verse did not say; “YOUR NAME, THE NAME WITH THE NAME OF GOD IN IT. We cannot change the verse just to fit into the understanding we want.
And, not only the CEB version implied that the Father’s name was given to the Son but, many other versions of the bible also implied the same thought. Even interlinear translation implied the same.
Below are versions that implied the same thought
NIV, NET, NLT, AMP, ASV, GNT, NCV, TLV, NABRE, FBV, ICB, ERV, GW, NIRV, TS2009, GNBDC, NRSV-CI, BOOKS, CJB
Applying the principle below;
“This is the third time that I’m coming to visit you. Every matter is settled on the evidence of two or three witnesses.”2 Corinthians 13:1 CEB
It seems too many witnesses already translated it in such that, the matter is already established that really, the Father’s name was given to the Son.
So, what name was given to Christ?
“As he was thinking about this, an angel from the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, “Joseph son of David, don’t be afraid to take Mary as your wife, because the child she carries was conceived by the Holy Spirit. She will give birth to a son, and YOU WILL CALL HIM JESUS, because he will save his people from their sins.”Matthew 1:20-21 CEB
“Jesus” is the name given by the Angel which is an instruction coming from God, therefore, given by God. This is the name prophesied in the below verse:
“For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. ”Isaiah 9:6 NKJV
Take note, it says “name” singular, the angel gave a singular name “Jesus”. Moreover, the subject is “name” to which the verse says going to be called;
- Everlasting Father
- Prince of Peace
Now, why would the name have a title both for Father – Everlasting Father and Son – Prince of Peace?
Answer: Because the name is of the Father which was not known yet to man before the Christ came hence, the title everlasting Father. The name was given to the Son hence, the name obtained a title as prince of peace. So, it follows that the name is actually the name of Father and Son.
The name Jesus was the name revealed to the people God gave to Him.
“I have revealed YOUR NAME to the people you gave me from this world. They were yours and you gave them to me, and they have kept your word.”John 17:6 CEB
This is the reason why the below verse is saying that, when we ask in His name which is Jesus, the Father can be glorified in the Son.
“I will do whatever you ask for in my name, so that the Father can be glorified in the Son. When you ask me for anything in my name, I will do it.”John 14:13-14 CEB
The Son, after all, comes in His Father’s name literally.
“I have come in my Father’s name, and you don’t receive me. If others come in their own name, you receive them.”John 5:43 CEB
Some would say, the Father’s name figuratively means “Father’s Authority”. Well;
- Let us not change what is written, it says “name”.
- The authority is in the name of Jesus. No name, no authority.
- The verse below said;
“and said, “I assure you that if you don’t turn your lives around and become like this little child, you will definitely not enter the kingdom of heaven.” Matthew 18:3 CEB
A child usually understood things first literally. The problem with most who read the bible is they think too much rather than reading it and applying like what a child would understand which is mostly in literal form. The interpretation of the bible is always literal first then if it does not make sense literally, you try figurative. But, if it made sense literally, you adopt the literal interpretation.
Again applying how a child would understand. Remember, there are many words- written and spoken i.e. Dog, Plants, Bus, Alex, Table, Jesus, bottle, Etc. Of all the words we knew, there is only one word biblically that became flesh and that word is “Jesus”. In Jhon 1:1, the word was said to be in the beginning and this word is God because it is the name of the Father. What word is it? “JESUS” is that word because there is no other word in all the words that we knew that became flesh in Jhon 1:14.
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”John 1:1 NKJV
“And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”John 1:14 NKJV
No wonder the name Jesus is said to be the name above a name because it is the name of the Father given to the son to make it known.
“Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those under the earth,” Philippians 2:9-10 NKJV
No wonder also the verse below said;
“If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; and from now on you know Him and have seen Him.”John 14:7 NKJV
If you know the Son, you’ll also know the Father because they have one name. The Son inherited the name of the Father. When we say inheritance, it means the name is owned by the Father given as inheritance to the Son. You cannot give inheritance on something you don’t own.
“having become so much better than the angels, as He has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.”Hebrews 1:4 NKJV
But why did Christ not call His Father “Jesus”? Answer: Its because it’s disrespectful, you don’t call your father on his proper name rather, you used an endearment name that identifies your relationship to your father. Nonetheless, through the Christ, the proper name of God was revealed and apostles were aware of this. In fact, when they were commissioned to baptized in the name (singular) of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit Matt 28:19. Peter responded in Act 2:38 using the name Jesus Christ. Why? Because, Jesus is identified to the name of the Father, Christ is identified to the name of the Son and the Holy Spirit was sent in the name of Jesus Christ.
But, In the future to come when we are victorious. The Son will introduce His new own name not, the Son will introduce a new name of the Father. The Son already introduce the Father’s name which He carries. According to Jhon 5:43, He comes in His Father’s name. Therefore, Jesus is not really Son’s own name but the Father’s name given to the Son to make it known the world. John 17:11-12 CEB
The name of the Son obtained while on earth was Christ. In time, The son will introduce His own new name.
“As for those who emerge victorious, I will make them pillars in the temple of my God, and they will never leave it. I will write on them the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the New Jerusalem that comes down out of heaven from my God. I will also write on them MY OWN NEW NAME.” Revelation 3:12 CEB